1. Let G be a group such that there exists an x belongs to G such that for all
g belongs to G, ord(g) less than·ord(x).
1) Suppose that G is abelian, show that for all g belongs G, ord(g) divides ord(x).
2) If G is a not abelian, show that the conclusion in 1) is no longer true.2 個解答數學1 十年前